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VIII SOCIAL SCIENCE TERM 1 ALL LESSONS BOOK BACK ONE MARK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
HISTORY
ADVENT OF THE EUROPEANS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India? Alfonso de Albuquerque
2. Which of the following European nations was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India? Portugal
3. In 1453 Constantinople was captured by The Turks
4. Sir William Hawkins belonged to England
5. The first fort constructed by the British in India was Fort St.George
6. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders? The French
7. Tranqueber on the Tamilnadu coast was a trade centre of the The Danish
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in New Delhi
2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by King John II
3. The printing press in India was set up by Portuguese at Goa in 1556.
4. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English to trade in India.
5. The French East India Company was formed by Colbert
6. Christian IV the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.
III. Match the following
1.The Dutch - 1616
2. The British - 1600
3. The Danish - 1602
4. The French - 1664
IV. State true or false
1. Auto biography is one of the written sources. True
2. Coins are one of the material sources.True
3. Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British. False
4. The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives. True
V. Consider the following statements and tick (V) the appropriate answer.
1. (i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
(ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from in India.
(iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
(iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.
Ans: i, ii & iv are correct
2. Find out the wrong pair
1. Francis Day – Denmark
2. Pedro Cabral – Portugal
3. Captain Hawkins – Britain
4. Colbert – France
Ans: 1. Francis Day – Denmark
TRADE TO TERRITORY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was Siraj – ud – daulah
2. The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757
3. Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar? Treaty of Allahabad
4. The Treaty of Pondichery brought the Second Carnatic war to an end .
5. When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore? 1761
6. Treaty of Mangalore was signed between The British and Tippu Sultan
7. Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo – Mysore War? Lord Cornwallis
8. Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British? Bajirao II
9. Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha empire? BajiRao
10. Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance? Hyderabad
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in 1757
2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaula was Mir Jafar
3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic war was The issue of succession
4. Lord Dalhousie adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
5. Tippu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of Arthur Wellesely
6. After the death of Tippu Sultan Mysore was handed over to Krishna Raja Odayar
7. In 1800, Lord Wellesley established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.
III. Match the following
1.Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle - First Carnatic War
2. Treaty of Salbai - First Maratha War
3. Treaty of Paris - Third Mysore War
4. Treaty of Srirangapatnam - Third Anglo Mysore war
5. Treaty of Madras - First Anglo Mysore War
IV. State true or false
1. After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj – ud – daula ascended the throne of Bengal. True
2. Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey. False
3. The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War in India. False
4. Sir Elijalmpey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal. True
5. The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis. True
V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
1. Battle of Adayar – 1748
2. Battle of Ambur – 1754
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
4. Battle of Arcot – 1749
Ans: Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
RURAL LIFE AND SOCIETY
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari, Malguzari and Biswedari etc.? None of these
2. Under which Governor General did the permanent settlement implemented in Bengal. Lord Cornwallis
3. What was the Mahal in the Mahalwari system? Village
4. In which region was the Mahalwari system imposed? Punjab
5. Who among the following Governors introduced Mahalwari system? Lord
William Bentinck
6. In which region was the Ryotwari system not introduced by the British? Bengal
7. The Indigo revolt was led by whom? Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas
8. The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by whom? Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Mahalwari system is the modified version of the Zamindari system.
2. The Mahalwari system was a Brain child of Holt Mackenzie
3. Indigo Revolt took place in Bengal
4. Maplah Rebellion was held in Malabar (Kerala)
5. The Champaran Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918
III. Match the following
1. Permanent settlement - Bengal
2. Mahalwari Settlement - North West Province
3. Ryotwari - Madras
4. Nil Darpan - Misery of the Indigo culitavators
5. Santhal Rebellion - First Peasant revolt
IV. State true or false
1. Warren Hastings introduced quinquennial land settlement. True
2. Ryotwari system was introduced by Thomas Munro. True
3. Pabna revolt originated in the Yusufshahi pargana in Gujarat. False
4. The Punjab land alienation Act was passed in 1918. False
PEOPLE’S REVOLT
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The Palayakkarar system was instituted in – 1529
2. Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English rule – Pulitevan
3. Colin Jackson was the collector of – Ramanathapuram
4. Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at the fort of – Kayathar
5. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of – Sivagangai
6. Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by – Marudhu Pandiyars
7. Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran chinnamalai – Odanilai
8. Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at – Central India
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The Eastern Palayms were ruled under the control of Kattabomman
2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his minister Ariyanatha Mudaliyar
3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to Andhra
4. Velu Nachiyar was known by Tamils as Veera mangai and Jhansi Rani of South India.
5. Chinna Marudu was called as ‘lion’ of sivagangai.
6. V.D. Savarkar was described the revolt of 1857 as First War of India Independence.
III. Match the following
1.Delhi - Bahadur ShahII
2. Kanpur - Nana Saheb
3. Jhansi - Lakshmi Bai
4. Bihar - Kunwar Singh
IV. State true or false
1. The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.True
2. Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudhu pandiyar. False
3. Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799. True
4. Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tippu Sultan. True
V. Consider the following statements and tick (✔) the appropriate answer
1. (i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
(ii) The family members of Tippu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
(iii) At the time of Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Bentinck.
(iv) The victory of revolt of Vellore against British was one of the significant event in the history of India.
Ans: ii &iii are correct
2. Find out the wrong pair :
1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram
2. Gopala Nayak – Dindigul
3. Kerala Varma – Malabar
4. Dhoondaji – Mysore
Ans:1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram
3. Find out the odd one :
Kattabomman, Oomaithurai, Sevathaiah, Tippu Sultan.
Ans:Tippu Sultan
ROCK AND SOIL
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which of the following is known as sphere of rocks –Lithosphere
2. World soil day is observed on –5th December
3. Fossils are found in – Sedimentary rocks
4. The first layer of soil is called as - Horizon
5. Ideal soil for growing cotton is – Black soil
6. The major component of soil is – Minerals
7. Which one of the following is the most widespread most and productive category of soil – Alluvial soil
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Scientific study of rocks is called Petrology
2. Black soil is highly suitable for cotton cultivation.
3. The “skin of earth” is Soil
4. White Marble is the kind of metamorphic rock using which the Taj Mahal was built.
5. Igneous rock is known as the primary rocks.
III. State whether the following statements are true or false
1. Igneous rocks are called primary rocks. True
2. Slate is formed from shale. True
3. Red soil is formed by the process of leaching. False
4. M – sand is used as an alternative for natural sand in construction. True
5. Volcanic mountains are covered with sedimentary rocks. False
IV. Match the following
1. a. Granite - Bedrock
b. Soil layer - Plutonic rock
c. Barren island - Active volcano
d. Soil Conservation - strip farming
2. a. Basalt - Extrusive igneous
b. Limestone - Sedimentary rock
c. Coal - Anthracite
d. Gneiss - Metamorphic rock
V. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
1.
1. Igneous rocks are called the primary rocks.
2. Soil is the product of weathering of rocks.
3. Sedimentary rocks are the hardest ones.
4. Deccan plateau is the region of Igneous rocks.
Ans: 3. Sedimentary rocks are the hardest ones.
2.
1. Soil erosion decreases its fertility.
2. Dynamic metamorphism is caused by high temperature.
3. Soil is a renewable source.
4. Humus is a part of the top layer of soil.
Ans: 2. Dynamic metamorphism is caused by high temperature.
VI. Consider the following statements and choose the right option from the given ones
Statement (1) – Sedimentary rocks consist of many layers.
Statement (2) – Sedimentary rocks are formed by the sediments deposited at different points of time.
1. 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1
2. 1 and 2 are correct but, 2 does not explain 1
3. 1 is correct but, 2 is incorrect
4. 2 is correct but 1 is incorrect.
Ans: 1. 1 and 2 are correct and 2 explains 1
VII. Give reasons for the following
1. Chemical sedimentary rocks are found in the beds of reservoirs.
Chemical Sedimentary rocks are formed by precipitating minerals from water.
It is formed usually through evaporation of chemical rich solutions.
2. Igneous rocks are found in the regions of volcanoes.
The igneous rocks are formed by the solidification of molten magma.
WEATHER AND CLIMATE
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78% and 2l% of nitrogen and oxygen.
2. Climate is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
3. The earth receives energy from Electromagnetic radiation
4. Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall Isohyets
5. Hygrometer is used to measure the humidity.
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Weather refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
2. The scientific study of weather is called Meterology
3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is 56.7°C
4. Relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
5. Wind speed and Wind direction are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
6. Isotherms are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.
III. Match the following
1. Climate - Long term changes
2. Isonif - Equal snowfall
3. Hygrometer - Humidity
4. Radar - Locating and tracking storms
5. Low Pressure - Cyclone
IV. State whether the following statements are True or False
1. The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet. True
2. The Scientific study of weather is called Climatology. False
3. Isohel refers to equal sunshine. True
4. Humidity is calculated by the Aneroid Barometer. False
HYDROLOGIC CYCLE
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The process in which the water moves between the oceans, atmosphere and land is called –Hydrologic Cycle
2. The percentage of fresh water on the earth is –2.8
3. The process of changing of water from gaseous to liquid form is known as –Condensation
4. Water that flows in the sub – soil or through the ground into the streams, rivers,
lakes and oceans is termed as –Runoff
5. The evaporation of water from the leaves of plants is called –Transpiration
6. Water that is good enough to drink is called –Potable water
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. The degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as Humidity
2. There are three phases in the water cycle.
3. The falling of water towards the earth surface from atmosphere in any form is known as Precipitation
4. The precipitation with the rain drop size of 0.5mm in diameter is known as Drizzle
5. Mist is lesser denser than Fog
III. Match the following
1. Vegetation - Transpiration
2. Condensation - Clouds
3. Snow and rain drops - Sleet
4. Infiltration - At the surface
IV. Choose the correct statement
1. Evaporation refers to
I. The process in which the gaseous form of water changes into liquid form.
II. It refers to the process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.
III. Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°C.
IV. It is responsible for the formation of clouds.
Ans: II and III are correct
V. State whether the following statements are True or False
1.Water boils at 212°F temperature but, it begins to evaporate at 32°F. True
2. Mist is not the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air. False
3. The sub – surface runoff is usually referred as interflow. True
MIGRATION AND URBANISATION
I. Choose the correct answer
1. People move from Rural to Urban mainly in search of better jobs.
2. A person moves from his own country to another country is known as Emigrant
3. The migration in search of fertile agricultural land is Rural to Rural migration.
4. War is one of the Political causes of human migration.
5. The main reason for the development of urbanization in pre – historic period was Domestication of cattle
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Urbanization is determined by three number of factors.
2. Poverty is the major push factor operating in rural areas.
3. Delhi metropolitan city in India has the second highest urban population in the world.
4. The movement of a person based on his free will and desire to live in a better place is voluntary migration.
5. In modem time urban growth was accelerated by the development of Towns and
cities.
III. Match the following
1. Emigration – Out migration
2. Immigration – In migration
3. Pull factor – Employment opportunity
4. Push factor – Unemployment
5. Marriage – Socio – Cultural migration
IV. State whether the following statements are True or False
1. Slums are generally found in cities. True
2. Mass migration is absent in the modem period. True
3. The process of Urbanisation has a short history. False
4. Cities and towns are the major polluters of environment. True
5. Transhumance is also referred as seasonal migration. True
V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option the given ones
Statement (A) – Urbanisation is mainly due to the movement of people from rural to cities.
Reason (R) – Rural to Urban migration is not a predominant one.
(a) A is correct but R is incorrect
(b) Both A and R are incorrect
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Ans: A is correct but R is incorrect
CIVICS
HOW THE STATE GOVERNMENT WORKS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. The Governor of a state is appointed by –President
2. The State Council Minsters is headed by –Chief Minister
3. Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
The Governor
4. Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
Chief Justice of the High Court
5. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is –62
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. 29 States are there in India at present.
2. The tenure of the Governor is normally five years.
3. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor
4. The Governor is the constitutional Head of the State.
5. Minimum age for elections as MLA is 25 years.
III. Match the following
1. Governor - Real head
2. Chief Minister - Nominal head
3. Legislative Assembly - Lower house
4. Legislative council - Upper house
IV. State true or false
1. Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.True
2. The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo – Indian Community to Legislative Assembly.False
3. The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed. True
V. Choose the correct statement
1. The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice – President
(iii) Rajya Sabha members
(iv) Members of the Legislative Council of the State
Ans: i, iii & iv are correct
CITIZEN AND CITIZENSHIP
I. Choose the correct answer
1.Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
Acquiring property
2. Part II Article 5 – 11 of the Constitution of India deals with the Citizenship.
3. Who is called the first citizen of India? The President
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Citizens of a state enjoy full civil and political rights.
2. Our Indian Constitution provides for only Single citizenship.
3. An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport are called Non – Resident Indian
4. All have right and Civic responsibility citizens.
5. Global citizenship is an idea enabling young people to access and participate in shaping modem society.
III. State true or false
1. USA has single citizenship. False
2. OCI card holders have voting rights in India. False
3. Citizen of India can enjoy Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our constitution.
True
4. Nationality can be changed and citizenship can not be changed. False
IV. Consider the following statements. Tick (V) the appropriate answer
1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if
I. A person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
II. a person who has become a citizen through registration.
III. The Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
IV. a citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
Ans: I and III are correct
2. Assertion – When Pondicherry becomes the part of India in 1962, the people lived there became Indian citizens.
Reason – It was done by one of the provisions of the Act of 1955 – by incorporation of Territory.
Ans: R is the correct explanation of A
UNDERSTANDING SECULARISM
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Secularism means an attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part
of citizen belonging any religion.
2. India is a land of multi – religious faith & multi – cultural beliefs
3. The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in 1976
4. Which one of the following describes India as a secular state? Preamble of the Constitution
5. Right to freedom of religion is related to –Fundamental rights
6. According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state aided educational institutions? Religious instruction
7. The country will be considered as a secular country, if it bans religious instructions in the state – aided educational institutions.
II. Fill in the Blanks:
1. Religion does not teach us animosity
2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants equal rights to people
3. Atheism is a lack of belief in god and gods.
4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote and unity and integrity of the nation
5. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth.
III. Match the following
1. Atheism – lack of belief in god
2. Children – future citizen
3. Din-i-Illahi – Divine faith
4. Constitution – 1950
5. Holvoake – coined the word .secularism
6. Raiaram Mohan Rov – social reformer
IV. State true or false:
1. There is state religion in India. False
2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word. False
3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. True
4. Jainism originated in China. False
5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.True
V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer
1. (i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious diversity.
(ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
(iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
(iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.
Ans: i, ii and iv only
2. Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for
Indians but also for the aliens also.
Ans: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
3. Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi – religious and multi – cultural country.
Ans: A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
4. Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Din-i-Illahi – A book
(b) Khajuraho – Hindu temple
(c) Ashoka – Rock Edict
(d) Iqbal – Poet
Ans: Din-i-Illahi – A book
ECONOMICS
MONEY, SAVINGS AND INVESTMENTS
I. Choose the correct answer
1. Which metals were used for metallic money? Gold, Silver, Bronze
2. Who introduced the paper money? British
3. The value of money is internal value of money & external value of money
4. Which is the Bank Money? Cheque
5. Pick out the incorrect one:
Investment can be made in different vehicles. Pay tax
6. Who is responsible for the collection and publication of monetary and financial information? Reserve Bank of India
II. Fill in the Blanks
1. Online Banking is also known as Net Banking
2. Money is what money does.
3. The term of bank is derived from German word.
4. Value of money is meant the purchasing power of money.
5. The Indian banking regulation act of 1949.
III. Match the following
1. Barter system - Exchanged goods for goods
2. Reserve Bank act - 1935
3. E – Money - Electronic Money
4. Savings - Consumers disposable income
5. Black money - Tax evaders
IV. Write the one word answer
1. The word Money is derived from?
The word Money is derived from Roman word “Moneta Juno”
2. Which bank gives to both short term and long term loans?
Rural cooperative credit institutions.
V. Choose the correct statement
1. Barter system had many deficiency like –
I. Lack of double coincidence of wants
II. No difficulties of storing wealth
III. Common measure of value
IV. Indivisibility of commodities
Ans: I, III and IV is correct
VI. Find out the odd one
1. Recent forms of money transactions are
Ans: Barter system
2. Effects of black money on economy is
Ans:No effects on production
